نموذج 8 لامتحان وزاره الصحة الاماراتيه
A) Aspirin
B) Colchicine
C) Allopurinol
D) Sodium salicylate i2– Which of the following is NOT an indication if digoxin
A) Congestive heart failure
B) Atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter
C) Ventricular tachycardia
D) Sinus tachycardia caused by congestive heart failure i3- The therapeutic effect of warfarin is achieved by
A) Dissolving existing thrombi
B) Preventing the thrombus formation when blood stasis occurs
C) Preventing the renal synthesis of Vitamin K
D) Preventing the thrombus formation n vitro i4- The antihypertensive effect of Guanethidine is inhibited by which of the following
A) Diazepam
B) Amitryptilline
C) Hydrochlorthiazide
D) Nitrofurantoin i5- In interaction of Amiloride with Caotopril there is a possibility of
A) Hypokaleamia
B) Hyperkaleamia
C) Hypocalcamia
D)Hypophosphateamia i6- Which of the following is not true about Simvastatin
A) It is a HMG CoA reductase inhibitor
B) Its main adverse effect is Gl disturbances
C) Concomittant administration of Simvastatin with cyclosporine is associated with increased risk of myopathy
D) The dose should be adjusted in renal failure patients i7- The possible interaction between Cisapride (Prepulsid) and Hyoscine butyl
A) Cisapride will increase the antimuscarinic side effect of Buscopan
B) They counteract the effect of each other
C) Buscopan will increase the adverse effects of cisapride
D) Cisapride will displace Buscopan from the plasma protein binding sites i8- Which of the following dose not lower plasma lipoprotein concentrations
A) Nicotinamide
B) Simvastatin
C) Cholestyramine
D) Gemfibrozil i9- The most common side effect related to the use of Aluminium containing antacids is
A) Nausea,Vomitting
B) Constipation
C) Diarrhoea
D) Gl bleeding i10- A disadvantage in the use of cimetidine, is its ability cause
A) Hair growth
B) Decreased prolactin secretion
C) Inhibition of hepatic microsomal enzymes
D) Oesophageal reflux
A) Hepatotoxicity
B) Nephrotoxicity
C) Tolerance
D) Respiratory impairment
i12- Gastric intrinsic factor is a glycoprotein that is required for Gl absorption
A) Vitamine B12
B)Folic acid
C) Iron
D) Calcium
i13- Which of the following ACE inhibitors has the shortest duration of action
A) Enalapril
B) Captopril
C) Lisinopril
D) Perindopril
i14- Which of the following antacids is most likely to induce rebound acidity
A) Aluminium hydroxide
B)Magnesium hydroxide
C) Simethicone
D) Calcium carbonate
i15- Apatient who has excessive levels of amylase indicate a disease of the
A) Liver
B) Heart
C) Pancreas
D) Kidney
i16- Sucralfate is best described as a \an
A) Artificial sweetner
B) Denaturing agent for alcohol
C) Ulcer protectant
D) Oral hypoglyceamic
i17- Which of the following drugs is suitable to treat a hypertensive patient who also has Asthma and Hyperuriceamia
A) Amlodipine
B) Hydrochlorthiazide
C) Moduretic
D) Propanolol
i18- Cromolyn is used in the following EXCEPT
A) In preventing food allergy
B) For local application to the eye
C) For local application to the nose
D) For local application to the skin
i19- Anoverdose of which drug can cause insomnia,arrythmais and convulsions
A) Aminophylline
B) Prednisolone
C) Adrenaline
D) Beclomethasone
i20- Which of the following is most likely to have long term side effects when used to treat asthma in a 10 yr old child
A) Daily administration of salbutamol by inhaler
B) Daily administration of prednisolone by mouth
C) Daily administration of beclomethasone by inhaler
D) Daily administration of cromolyn by inhaler
A) Polymixin B
B) Pencillin G
C) Carbenicillin
D) Clindamycin i22- Chloramphenicol is the drug of choice in
A) Symptomatic salmonella infections
B) Tuberculosis
C) Cholera
D) Streptococcal pharyngitis i23- Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about clindamycin
A) It is effective against staphylococcus aureus
B) It is effective against anaerobic organisms
C) The major side effect is Pseudomembraneous colitis
D) It is indicated for serious bone infections
i24- Nedocromil is classified as
A) A beta- agonist
B) Methylxanthine
C) Mast- cell- stabilizer
D) Glucocorticoid
i25- Salmeterol is a
A) Abeta-agonist
B) Methylxanthine
C) Mast-cell- stabilizer
D) Muscarinic antagonist
i26- Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about Diphenhydramine
A) It has an expectorant effect
B) It has an antihistaminic effect
C) It has an atropine like effect
D) It is contraindicated in patients with prostate hypertrophy
i27- Which of the following drugs DOES NOT cause insomnia
A) MAO’S
B) Caffeine
C) Beta blockers
D) Barbiturates
i28- Which of the following can reduce the effectiveness of sulphonamides antibiotics
A) Folic acid
B) Pantothenic acid
C) Vitamin B12
D) Methotrexate
i29- Which of the following is the most effective drug for the treatment of motion sickness
A) metoclopramide
B) ondanestron
C) Prochlorperazine
D) cinnarizine
i30- Which one of the following is a benzodiazepine anxiolytic drug
A) Buspirone
B) Lorazepam
C) Haloperidol
D) Pimozide
A) Penetrate the Blood brain Barrier slowly
B) Penetrate the Blood brain Barrier rapidly
C) Be eliminated slowly
D) Not be distributed to any tissue sites
i32- Which of the following is NOT an indication of Tranexamic acid
A) Treatment of haemorrhage associated with excessive fibrinolysis
B) An antidote for streptokinase overdose
C) Prophylaxis of hereditary angioedema
D) Prevent haemorrhage due to heparin overdose
i33- Phenobarbital will interact with warfarin through which mechanism
A) Induction of microsomal enzymes B) Induction of non- microsomal enzymes C) Inhibition of non- microsomal enzymes D) Inhibition of microsomal enzymesi34- Sulphonyureas e.g; Glibenclamide (Daonil)act by
A) I ncreasing the secretion of insulin from beta cells
B) Increasing the uptake of glucose by muscle
C) Reducing the hepatic synthesis of glucose
D) All of the above
i35- Which of the following is NOT a third generation cephalosporin
A) Cefuroxime
B) Cefriaxone
C) Ceftazidime
D) Cefotaxime
i36- Which of the following drugs has alow therapeutic index
A) Dioxin (Lanoxin)
B) Dilitiazem( Dilzem)
C) Theophylline (Theodur)
D) a and c above
i37- Which of the following salts commonly cause diarrhea
A) Aluminum hydroxide
B) Ferrous sulphate
C) Magnesium hydroxide
D) All of the above
i38- Which of the following is a gram positive bacteria
A) Streptococcus faecalis
B) Salmonells typhi
C) Haemophilus influenza
D) E. Coli
i39- Which of the following can be used safely to treat diabetes in pregnancy
A) Metformin (Glucophage)
B) Glibenclamide (Daonil)
C) Insulin
D) None of the above
i40- Tamoxifen (Nolvadex) is
A) Progesterone receptor antagonist
B) Progesterone receptor agonist
C) Oestrogen receptor agonist
D) Oestrogen receptor antagonist
B) Insultard
C) Monotard
D) Ultralente
A)Cholestyramine (Questran)
B) Fluvastatin (Lescol)
C) Gemfibrosil (Lopid)
D) Simvastatin (Zocor)
i
43- Which of the following drugs is SAFE in G6PD deficiencyA) Cephalexin
B) Dapsone
C) Primaquin
D) Sulphamethoxazole
A) Cimetidine
B) Misoprostol
C) Omeprazole
D) Sucralfate
A) Acacia
B) Lactose
C) Polysorbate 20
D)Sorbittan monopalmitate
A) It meits between 33 and 35 degrees centigrade
B) It is a mixture of glycerides
C) It is useful in formulating suppositories
D) It is soluble in water
A) Alopecia
B) Cough
C) Hypokaleamia
D) All of the above
A) Fenamate derivative
B) Propionic acid derivative
C)Pyrazolline derivative
D) None of the above
A) Flucytosine
B) Flumazenil
C) Flunarizine
D) Flurazepam
A)Antagonism of H-1 receptors
B) Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle
C) Stabilization of epithelial mast cells
D) None of the above
A) Diclofenac
B) Ibuprofen
C) Naproxen
D) Piroxicam i52- Which of the following can be used safely in a patient who is allergic to aspirin
A)Diclofenac
B) Ibuprofen
C) Meloxicam
D) None of the above i53- Which one of the following must be avoided during treatment with methotrexate
A) Aspirin
B) Cimetidine
C) Folic acid
D) Metoclopramide i54- What daily dose of aspirin is considered to be anti- inflammatory
A) 500 to 1g
B) 1g to 2g
C) more than 3g
D) 75 mg daily i55- Which one of the following blocks the neuromuscular junction
A) Baclofen
B) Chlordiazepoxide
C) Diazepam
D) Vecuronium i56- The expiry date of a drug is usually the time when potency falls below
A) 90%
B) 85 %
C)80%
D) 75 % i57- The term “store in a cool place “means that the temperature must not exceed
A) 4 centigrade
B) 10 centigrade
C) 15 centigrade
D) 30 centigrade i58- Which of the following is the drug of choice for an acute febrile convulsion
A) Carbamazepine
B) Clonazepam
C) Diazepam
D) Phenytoin i59- Peripheral neuritis due to isoniazid can be avoided by giving which vitamin
A) Ascorbic acid
B) Pyridoxine
C) Riboflavine
D) Thiamine i60- Tuberculosis is treated with a combination of drugs because
A) This prevents the emergence of resistant organisms
B) Itimproves drug penetration in to the mycobacterium
C) It minimizes the rifampicin toxicity
D) Itminimizes the isoniazid toxicity
A) January 01,2001
B) January15,2001
C) January 31,2001
D) December 31,2001 i62- The antibacterial mechanism of penicillin is most similar to
A) Clindamycin ( Dalacin
B) Tetracycline (Achromycin)
C) Ciprofloxacin (Ciprobay)
D) Cefachlor (Ceclor i63- Which of the following statements about Doxycycline is NOT true
A) It is mainly excreted in the faeces
B) It commonly causes gastrointestinal distress
C) Its absorption is inhibited bt antacids and milk
D) It may produce phototoxic reaction on exposure to sunlight i64- Which of the following antibioitics should be administered to a patient whose renal function is severly compromised
A) Erythromycin
B) Tobramycin
C) Norfloxacillin
D) Piperacillin i65- All of the following agents cause their toxic effects by interferences in DNA trans cription
A) Cisplatin
B) Tamoxifen
C) Doxorubicin
D) Cyclophosphamide
i66- Hyperkaleamia is a contraindication to the use of
A) Chlorthalidone
B) Acetazolamide
C) Spironolactone
D) Chlorthalidone
i67- Which of the following is not a beta-lactam abntibiotic
A) Aztreonam
B) Imipenem
C) Streptomycin
D) Ampicillin
i68- Which of the following is not recommended for the amanagement of allergic rhinitis
A) Systemic nasal decongestants
B) Corticosteroids
C) Cromoglycate
D) Nedocromil
i69- Which of the following is a risk factor for heart disease
A) Low HDL cholesterol
B) Low LDL cholesterol
C) Low triglycerides
D) Low VLDL cholesterol
i70- Which of the following is TRUE
A) Procainamide is m etabolized more slowly than procaine
B) Sulphonyureas are oral anticoagulant
C) An immediate IV injection salbutamol is used to treat acute systemic anaphylaxis
D) Ketamine is used in the treatment of migraine
A) Metformin
B) Glucagon
C) Vasopressin
D) Insulin i72- Mannitol may be useful in all the following treatments EXCEPT
A) Treatment of pulmonary oedema with congestive heart failure
B) Diagnostic evaluation of acute oligourea
C) Treatment of elevated intraoccula pressure
D) Prophylaxis of acute renal failure
i73- Omeprazole should only be used on pres cription because
A) It is expensive
B) It has many drug interactions
C) It can mask the symptoms ofgastric cancer
D) It can cause hepatitis
i74- Histamine induced broncho-constriction is due to the activation of
A) H1 receptors
B) H2 receptors
C) H3 receptors
D) Allof the above
i75- Which of the following medicine is available as an OTC medicine in the treatment of nausea and vomiting
A) Dimenhydrinate
B) Prochlorperazine
C) Meclozine
D) Chlorpromazine
i76- In Addison’s disease the proper replacement therapy should be
A) Glucocorticoid plus mineralocorticoid
B) Mineralocorticoid therapy alone
C) Glucocorticoid therapy alone
D) Tetracosactrin ( analogue of ACTH)
i77- Streptomycini is an antibiotic indicated for the treatment of
A) Gram-negative bacterial septiceamia
B) Tuberculosis
C) Pencillin-resistant gonococcal infection
D) Syphillis
i78- In the treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), inhaled corticosteroids
A) Are more effective in the treatment of asthma
B) Are more beneficial when used alone
C) Produce more side effects than when used in the oral form
D) Should be used for at least 2 weeks before efficacy is assessed
i79- The primary goals of asthma therapy include all the following EXCEPT
A) Treatment of secondary complications
B) Management of acute attacks
C) Chronic symptom management
D) Prevention of lung tissue destruction
i80- In the emergency room,the preferred first line therapy for asthma is
A) Theophyline
B) Beta- agonists
C) Corticosteroid
A) Gonorrhoea
B) Typhoid fever
C) Meningococcal meningitis
D) All of the above i82- Which statement would most accurately describe the antibacterial of tetracycline antibiotics
A) They are bacteriostatic
B) They inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 30s ribosomal unit
C) They inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
D) All of the above i83) Which of the following corticosteroids has the highest mineralocorticoid activity
A) Cortisone acetate
B) Hydrocortisone
C) Fludrocortisone
D) Betamethasone
i84- The recommended maintenance dose of Ranitidine for peptic ulcer is
A) 150 mg at night
B) 300 mg at night
C) 150 mg twice daily
D) 300 mg twice daily
i85- Which of the following is NOT an indication for desmopressin
A) Diabetees insipidus
B) Primary nocturnal eneuresis
C) Renal function testing
D) Prostate atrophy
i86- A hypertensive patient should be encouraged to
A) Reduce the amount of salt in their diet
B) Increase the amount of salt in their diet
C) Drink more water if they eat a salty meal
D) Reduce their fluid intake
i87- Which of the following is NOT true of methadone
A) Can be given orally or parenterally
B) It is a narcotic antagonist
C) It is an addictive drug
D) It has significant analgesic activity
i88- Select the drug of choice foe the treatment of an otitis externa caused by staphylococcus
A) Aluminium acetate
B) Neomycin
C) Chloramphenicol
D) Flucloxacillin
i89- Caffeine toxicity may include all of the following symptoms EXCEPT
A) Cough
B) Anxiety
C) Reslessness
D) Muscle twitching
i90- A bacteriostatic agent has which of the following effects on bacteria
B) It dehydrates bacteria
C) It inhibits multiplication of bacteria
D) All of the above
A) May have the adour of acetone on their breath
B) Usually recovers without treatment
C) May tremor excessively
D) None of the above
i92- All of the following drugs may be used for the therapy of hypertensive emergency crisis EXCEPT
A) Furosemide
B) Diazoxide
C) Nifedipine
D) propanolol
i93- ACE inhibitors are associated with a high incidence of which of the following adverse reactions
A) Hepatitis
B) Hypokaleamia
C) Agranulocytosis
D) Cough
i94- Barbiturates containing a sulphur atom are usually
A) Short acting
B) Ultrashort acting
C) Iong acting
D) Medium acting
i95-Adecrease in HDL/LDL ratio indicates
A) Increased triacyl glycerol
B) Increased mobilization of fat
C) Low risk for artherosclerosis
D) Increased esterification of cholesterol
i95- Diverticulosis is associated with
A) Stomach
B) Small intestine
C) liver
D) Colon
i96- Dyspnoea means
A) Painful muscle spasm
B) Pain in the heart
C) difficulty in breathing
D) none of the above
i97- Esters are formed by the reaction between
A) Acids and bases
B) Acids and alcohols
C) Acids and aldehydes
D) Acids and ketones
i98- For how long should the patient wait after stopping MAO inhibitor’s before he starts on Tricyclic antidepressants
A) 1 months
B) 2 months
C) 2 weeks
D) 3 days
i99- Glipizide is used to true
A) Peptic ulcer
B) Diabetes
C) Colitis
D) Infections
i100- In running person Which of the following occurs
A) Hyperventilation
B) Tachycardia
C) Increased BP
D) Increased stroke volume
E) All of the above
i1———————–C
i2———————–C
i3———————–B
i4———————–B
i5———————–B
i6———————–D
i7———————–B
i8———————–A
i9———————–B
i10———————-C
i12———————-A
i13———————-B
i14———————-D
i15———————-C
i16———————-C
i17———————-A
i18———————-D
i19———————-A
i20———————-B
i22———————–A
i23———————–B
i24———————–C
i25———————–A
i26———————–A
i27———————–D
i28———————–A
i29———————–D
i30———————–B
—————————————————————-
i32———————–D
i33———————–A
i34———————–D
i35———————–A
i36———————–D
i37———————–C
i38———————–A
i39———————–C
i40———————–D
—————————————————————-
i42———————–C
i43———————–A
i44———————–B
i45———————–A
i46———————–D
i47———————–B
i48———————–B
i49———————–B
I50———————–C
II
i52———————–D
i53———————–A
i54———————–C
i55———————–D
i56———————–A
i57———————–C
i58———————–C
i59———————–B
i60———————–A
i63———————–C
i64———————–A
i65———————–B
i66———————–C
i67———————–C
i68———————–A
i69———————–A
i70———————–A
i73———————–C
i74———————–A
i75———————–A
i76———————–A
i77———————–C
i78———————–C
i79———————–D
i80———————–B
i82———————–D
i83———————–C
i84———————–A
i85———————–D
i86———————–A
i87———————–B
i88———————–D
i89———————–A
i90———————–C
i92———————–D
i93———————–D
i94———————–B
95———————–C
i95———————–D
i96———————–C
i97———————–B
i98———————–C
i99———————–B
i100———————-E